income tax during the one year bankrupt period

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gill

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Post by gill » Mon Jul 16, 2007 4:24 pm
Does any know if tou pay income tax during the one year period you are bankrupt.
 
 

Oliver

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Post by Oliver » Mon Jul 16, 2007 4:36 pm
Hello

THe income tax will be paid seperately for you by the OR. This will mean that your taxcode on your payslips will be a zero tax code.

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gill

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Post by gill » Mon Jul 16, 2007 4:40 pm
I am self employed how will this effect me
 
 

Oliver

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Post by Oliver » Mon Jul 16, 2007 4:50 pm
If you are self-employed, your duty to pay tax directly to HM Revenue and Customs will no longer apply to the tax year of bankruptcy or any previous year. You start paying tax directly from the following tax year.



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MelanieGiles

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Post by MelanieGiles » Mon Jul 16, 2007 9:54 pm
Income tax is not payable from the time you are bankrupt to the end of that fiscal year. Instead, the tax saved is paid to the Official Receiver for the benefit of the bankruptcy estate. This is an Inland Revenue ruling, and has nothing to do with insolvency legislation.

Regards, Melanie Giles, Insolvency Practitioner for over 20 years.

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gill

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Post by gill » Mon Jul 16, 2007 10:33 pm
so the amount of tax for the year of bankrupcy is to be given to the receivers office and not the inland revenue.should my accountant be adviseing how to to this
 
 

MelanieGiles

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Post by MelanieGiles » Mon Jul 16, 2007 10:38 pm
If you are self-employed, and subject to either and IVA or bankruptcy proceedings, the tax due for the current fiscal year is not payable to HMRC but forms a claim in your IVA. Your accountant ought to be aware of this.

Regards, Melanie Giles, Insolvency Practitioner for over 20 years.

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sarah1975uk

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Post by sarah1975uk » Mon Jul 16, 2007 10:44 pm
Melanie

Interesting. So when you enter an iva does this mean my tax code goes to zero and paid into the iva? If so for how long as iva is longer? or does this just all relate to bankruptcy?? Thanks Sarah x

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Last edited by sarah1975uk on Mon Jul 16, 2007 10:45 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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MelanieGiles

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Post by MelanieGiles » Mon Jul 16, 2007 10:48 pm
No - this happens in bankruptcy only if you are subject to PAYE. If you are self-employed then all of the tax due for the current fiscal year forms a claim in the proceedings, and you will not pay any tax over to HMRC until the following year.

Regards, Melanie Giles, Insolvency Practitioner for over 20 years.

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sarah1975uk

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Post by sarah1975uk » Mon Jul 16, 2007 10:52 pm
Melanie

Does this mean that you would also have to pay surplus into the bankruptcy as well as the tax on your earnings for that year?

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MelanieGiles

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Post by MelanieGiles » Mon Jul 16, 2007 10:55 pm
Not sure I understand what you mean Sarah. Are you PAYE or self-employed?

Regards, Melanie Giles, Insolvency Practitioner for over 20 years.

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sarah1975uk

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Post by sarah1975uk » Mon Jul 16, 2007 11:03 pm
sorry melanie, will try and explain myself better. Ok when in Bankruptcy i understand you have IPA for you tp pay percentage of your surplus income into Bankruptcy. Do you have a IPA as well as having nil tax code ? sorry for being so thick!

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scaredkez

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Post by scaredkez » Mon Jul 16, 2007 11:26 pm
yes you have both if you have a surplus
kerri

not that you should note any difference other than you receive your tax instead of paying it.

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MelanieGiles

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Post by MelanieGiles » Mon Jul 16, 2007 11:30 pm
Sarah - you are not thick. Even I struggle to get my head round this strange Inland Revenue ruling sometimes!!!!

Regards, Melanie Giles, Insolvency Practitioner for over 20 years.

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sarah1975uk

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Post by sarah1975uk » Mon Jul 16, 2007 11:32 pm
thanks Melanie you are a true star. So helpful always and i really appreciate it xx

Thank you for eveyone's help & Support xx
Thank you for eveyone's help & Support xx
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