In this instance then, would this make it difficult to get an iva. How does it work at end as it seems to suggest that in the last 4th or 5th year, how does this affect the amount paid back. Is it compulsory that the house would be part of the iva

Is there something called a benefical interest that may have to be proved in the property. we are both in our late 50's and dont want to have to get a mrtgage at this stage

Well there is no mortgage on it as it was bought and paid for by my wife long before i moved in and married. The debts are mine and not hers. The deeds are still in her maiden name.

my wife owns our house and did for 20 years befor we married, the deeds are in her maiden name. I have paid partly to the monthly bills. I am considering an iva for my own personal debt, it is not joint debt. Will the house be affected