I am in the process of trying to set up an IVA, using an IP from a local firm of accountants. He seems very competent and professional, unlike some of the 'IVA factories'. One thing that is puzzling me is how my overdraft fits into all of this. It currently stands at around £900, against a £1400 limit, which I have exceeded only once in the last ten years. My IP advised me to exclude the overdraft from the IVA proposals unless the bank (Barclays) withdraws my banking facilities. I wrote to Barclays two weeks ago explaining my situation and advising them that I was looking to enter an IVA. So far I have heard nothing back from them. Incidentally, I also have around £8K on a Barclayloan which is included in the IVA.
Couple of questions: firstly, has anyone else managed to exclude an overdraft from an IVA in this way? It seemed odd to me, but my IP did not see it as presenting a problem. Secondly, if I reduce the overdraft, either before or after the IVA is (hopefully) approved, does this constitute preferential treatment of a creditor?
If Barclays pulls the plug, I will just lump the overdraft in with the IVA and move banks. But having been with them for twenty years I am reluctant to do this unless pushed. There is a further twist in that I run a small company in which I have a 50% share: the company is my sole source of income, and its bankers are... Barclays. The company has a £2K overdraft facility (unsecured, no personal guarantee) and if Barclays withdraw banking facilities for the company I will be in real trouble.
I would speak to my IP, but having bothered him a few times already I thought I would see what people here think first.
Richard