Page 1 of 1

Posted: Fri Nov 23, 2007 8:57 pm
by nightmare
Hi, Someone I know has bought a house in spain via mortgage, is selling the one back here which has been put back in wifes name and will make a nice profit and left a large amount of debt. Some one has been to see him and said that he wont have to pay anything back as wife owned house before him. Is this true?

Posted: Fri Nov 23, 2007 9:14 pm
by Cybus
In order to give an answer to this, you are going to need to provide dates when these transactions took place and the parties concerned.

Just because someone you know troops off to Spain with a fat pile of cash and owing lots of money, does not mean they are beyond the law here. He / she can and, more than likely, will be traced!

Tell it like it is.

Posted: Fri Nov 23, 2007 9:43 pm
by nightmare
Thanks for reply, I just feel as though we are being feed a load of lies, as everybody else would be doing it.