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Posted: Fri May 09, 2014 8:35 pm
by Laura.14
My husband has an IVA. We own a property together but I don't know why I have to sign RX1
Posted: Fri May 09, 2014 9:16 pm
by Foggy
Because your husband's share of equity will need to be paid in towards his debts in due course, so a restriction needs to be placed upon the property so that it cannot be sold without the IP's knowledge and consent.
Posted: Sat May 10, 2014 8:53 am
by orange
We never recieved this form for our iva
Posted: Sat May 10, 2014 9:32 am
by Adam Davies
Hi
I often what happens when the partner not in an IVA refuses to sign the RX1 form ? You can understand any ones reluctance to do this
Regards
Posted: Sat May 10, 2014 10:52 am
by Michael Peoples
This should be resolved pre IVA as the spouse should be aware of the IVA and know exactly what the restriction is all about.