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Hi,Long time since i've posted on here hope you're all keeping well, myself and daughter are fine but what a dredfull time we've had over the last 18 months, but never mind..The glass is still half full (just) Right then My Question....Myself and EX husband are bankrupts but i was discharges back in 2010 and he in may of this yr..The house we lived in went for repossession and there is a £50.000 shortfall. How will the lenders get their money back? He works but i'm on benefits. I no we're both liable for this so any advice would be appreciated, Thanks guys X h4u[;)]

You should not be liable for this as it should fall into your bankruptcy unless you have signed a form from your mortgage company to say you will accept liability?

Can you speak to the OR still? I would have thought the shortfall was included. x

I'm pretty sure that the shortfall should be included as BOL says.

lem wrote:

You should not be liable for this as it should fall into your bankruptcy unless you have signed a form from your mortgage company to say you will accept liability?

Why would anyone sign such a form??

Paul

Some people do - if you're not too savvy then you might think this is what you have to do.

Thanks for replies....So are you saying this might fall into the BR then, even though we are discharged. H4U

If the mortgage existed at the time of the bankrutpcy, then the shortfall ought to form a bankruptcy debt.